We already know that the burnt offering should be slaughtered in the North of the Courtyard. But if the Kohen went ahead and slaughtered it in the South, is it valid? In other words, is this requirement "before" or even "after?"
Can we say this: since the sin-offering must be slaughtered in the North, and its laws are learnt from the laws of the burnt offering, then of course the burnt offering must be in the North - for we never find that a derived law is stronger than the basic one!
No, we can't really say it. Take, for example, the second tithe, which may be redeemed for money, but after it was redeemed once, it cannot be redeemed again - which is stronger! - Wrong! The sanctity of second redemption is weaker, not stronger, and that's why it cannot be redeemed.
Another attempt: take the Passover offering, which does not require libations, but if it is brought after Passover, it does require them! So the second time around it is stronger! - Wrong! It simply becomes a peace offering which requires libations.
We have deflected all attacks, but anyway we have a better proof, "in the place of the burnt offering" tells us that the burnt offering should stay in its place.
Art: Pieter the Elder Bruegel - The Slaughter Of The Innocents 1565-66
Wednesday, December 29, 2010
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